Following months of speculation, the Dallas Cowboys have reportedly decided to part ways with former Pro Bowl wide receiver Dez Bryant after eight seasons. Depending on when the team officially chooses to release him, it will put Bryant on the open market for the first time in his NFL career.

This has already led to speculation concerning where he could potentially land this offseason. According to Mickey Spagnola of DallasCowboys.com, the 29-year-old has already possibility hinted at where he could have interest in signing in free agency.

This has immediately put each of the other NFC East teams in the New York Giants, Washington Redskins, and Philadelphia Eagles into the picture as the Cowboys play each of these teams at least twice this season. Each of these organization could potentially express interest in bringing aboard the veteran wide receiver to add to their respective rosters.

At this current juncture, both the Eagles and Redskins currently possess at $14 million in salary cap space that could put them in the position to sign Bryant. The more likely immediate choice could wind up being Philadelphia given that they are coming off their first Super Bowl win in franchise history and have already added more proven players to the mix this offseason that should put them in contention once again in 2018.

The Eagles are currently stacked at wide receiver possessing the likes Alshon Jeffery, Mike Wallace, and Nelson Agholor at the position. If Bryant is willing to take a pay cut along with a smaller role in the passing game that he had grown accustomed to with the Cowboys over his first eight years in the league.

He could quickly step in and form a formidable tandem alongside Jeffery with two big body wide receivers that are legitimate red zone threats. It may be quite early in the process, but it is clear that Bryant has his eyes on staying in the NFC East to get a chance to face his former team as much as possible.