The upcoming NFL free agency class looks to be one of the deepest in recent memory on the defensive side, and the New York Jets seem poised to try and take advantage of their cap situation, especially when it comes to a young defensive back.
According to a report by DraftAnalyst.com’s Tony Pauline (via 247 Sports), the New York Jets have apparently placed Chicago Bears defensive back Bryce Callahan high on their list of potential targets in free agency, especially with two key players from their secondary set to hit free agency.
“With Morris Claiborne and Buster Skrine set for free agency, the New York Jets may need a starting cornerback and a nickel corner,” he wrote. “On the free-agent front, one player high on their list of potential signees is Bryce Callahan of the Chicago Bears.”
Callahan played in just 13 games last season before suffering a season-ending injury, but finished the year with 45 tackles, two sacks, two interceptions, and six pass deflections. Although he wasn’t highly regarded throughout the NFL landscape, he was a crucial piece to a defense that was one of the NFL’s best and most consistent last year.
The Jets already have a premier defensive talent in safety Jamal Adams, but signing Callahan would go a long way to making the Jets secondary a once again feared unit on the field. With free agency set to start in just a couple of weeks, it looks like the Jets know just how they’d like to spend their money.
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