Jadeveon Clowney entered the offseason as one of the top pass rushers on the market. Yet, here we are in June, and he is still a free agent. Numerous teams have been mentioned as potential landing spots for Clowney, including the New York Jets, and the fact that the Jets just cleared $11 million in salary cap room made them look like an even more likely destination. However, it looks like that is not the case.
According to Rich Cimini of ESPN.com, the Jets have never had serious interest in Clowney, even with the $25.2 million in cap space the team currently possesses.
Clearly, there is a disconnect between what Clowney wants and what the rest of the NFL feels he is worth. While the 27-year-old is certainly a big name, his production throughout his career has not really matched the hype.
Since entering the league as a No. 1 overall pick of the Houston Texans back in 2014, Clowney has made three Pro Bowl appearances, but he has never logged a double-digit sack campaign. His best season came in 2017, when he finished with 59 tackles, 9.5 sacks, a couple of forced fumbles, three fumble recoveries and a defensive touchdown.
The University of South Carolina product spent his first five seasons with the Texans, but because he and Houston were unable to come to terms on a long-term deal last year, he was traded to the Seattle Seahawks just ahead of the 2019 campaign.
Clowney played in 13 games this past season, totaling 31 tackles and three sacks in a rather underwhelming year. It should also be noted that the defensive lineman dealt with a sports hernia injury through much of the second half and ultimately underwent surgery to repair the issue back in February.
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